NDA 2 2026 is just around the corner. With the examination scheduled for 13 September 2026, the final days should be used for smart revision rather than trying to complete the entire syllabus again.

This special revision set from The Original Tutors contains 100 important NDA-level questions covering Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, History, Geography, Polity, General Science, English and recent current affairs.

These are not claims about the questions that will appear in the actual NDA 2 2026 paper. Instead, they are designed to help aspirants revise important concepts and frequently tested areas before the examination.

Last 7 Days Rule: Revise → Practise → Analyse → Repeat.

NDA 2 2026 Final Revision: 100 Important Questions

SECTION A — MATHEMATICS

Questions 1–25

1. If A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {2, 3, 4}, what is A ∩ B?

A. {1, 4}

B. {2, 3}

C. {1, 2, 3, 4}

D. {3, 4}

Answer: B — {2, 3}

2. If the roots of x² − 5x + 6 = 0 are α and β, what is α + β?

A. 5

B. 6

C. −5

D. −6

Answer: A — 5

3. What is the value of sin²θ + cos²θ?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. sin θ

Answer: B — 1

4. If tan θ = 1, where θ is an acute angle, then θ is:

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 90°

Answer: B — 45°

5. What is the determinant of the matrix [[2, 3], [1, 4]]?

A. 5

B. 8

C. 11

D. 6

Answer: A — 5

6. The sum of the first n natural numbers is:

A. n²

B. n(n + 1)/2

C. n(n − 1)/2

D. 2n

Answer: B

7. The number of ways of selecting 2 objects from 5 objects is:

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

Answer: B — 10

8. What is the probability of getting a head when a fair coin is tossed once?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 1/2

D. 1/4

Answer: C — 1/2

9. The slope of a line parallel to the x-axis is:

A. 1

B. −1

C. 0

D. Undefined

Answer: C — 0

10. The distance between the points (0,0) and (3,4) is:

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 7

Answer: C — 5

11. The derivative of x² with respect to x is:

A. x

B. 2x

C. x²

D. 2

Answer: B — 2x

12. The derivative of sin x is:

A. −sin x

B. cos x

C. −cos x

D. tan x

Answer: B — cos x

13. ∫2x dx is equal to:

A. x² + C

B. 2x² + C

C. x + C

D. 2 + C

Answer: A — x² + C

14. The mean of 2, 4, 6, 8 and 10 is:

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

Answer: B — 6

15. The volume of a cylinder of radius r and height h is:

A. πrh

B. 2πrh

C. πr²h

D. 2πr²h

Answer: C — πr²h

16. If two vectors are perpendicular, their dot product is:

A. 1

B. −1

C. 0

D. Infinity

Answer: C — 0

17. If log₁₀100 = x, then x equals:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 10

D. 100

Answer: B — 2

18. The roots of x² − 9 = 0 are:

A. 3 only

B. −3 only

C. ±3

D. 9 and −9

Answer: C — ±3

19. If a:b = 2:3 and b:c = 3:4, then a:c is:

A. 1:2

B. 2:4

C. 2:3

D. 3:4

Answer: B — 1:2

20. What is the value of 5! ?

A. 20

B. 60

C. 100

D. 120

Answer: D — 120

21. The equation of the x-axis is:

A. x = 0

B. y = 0

C. x = y

D. x + y = 0

Answer: B — y = 0

22. The probability of an impossible event is:

A. 0

B. 1

C. −1

D. 1/2

Answer: A — 0

23. If a matrix has equal number of rows and columns, it is called a:

A. Row matrix

B. Column matrix

C. Square matrix

D. Null matrix

Answer: C — Square matrix

24. The sum of angles of a triangle is:

A. 90°

B. 180°

C. 270°

D. 360°

Answer: B — 180°

25. If the radius of a circle is doubled, its area becomes:

A. 2 times

B. 3 times

C. 4 times

D. 8 times

Answer: C — 4 times

SECTION B — PHYSICS

Questions 26–40

26. What is the SI unit of force?

A. Joule

B. Newton

C. Watt

D. Pascal

Answer: B — Newton

27. Newton's first law is also known as the law of:

A. Gravitation

B. Acceleration

C. Inertia

D. Momentum

Answer: C — Inertia

28. The SI unit of work is:

A. Watt

B. Newton

C. Joule

D. Pascal

Answer: C — Joule

29. The acceleration due to gravity near the Earth's surface is approximately:

A. 4.9 m/s²

B. 9.8 m/s²

C. 19.6 m/s²

D. 98 m/s²

Answer: B — 9.8 m/s²

30. Which quantity is measured in watts?

A. Energy

B. Force

C. Power

D. Momentum

Answer: C — Power

31. The speed of light is maximum in:

A. Water

B. Glass

C. Vacuum

D. Diamond

Answer: C — Vacuum

32. Which lens is generally used to correct myopia?

A. Convex lens

B. Concave lens

C. Cylindrical lens only

D. Plane glass

Answer: B — Concave lens

33. The SI unit of electric current is:

A. Volt

B. Ohm

C. Ampere

D. Coulomb

Answer: C — Ampere

34. Ohm's law is represented by:

A. V = IR

B. P = VI

C. F = ma

D. W = Fs

Answer: A — V = IR

35. Which instrument measures electric current?

A. Voltmeter

B. Ammeter

C. Barometer

D. Hygrometer

Answer: B — Ammeter

36. Sound cannot travel through:

A. Solids

B. Liquids

C. Gases

D. Vacuum

Answer: D — Vacuum

37. Which form of energy is stored in a stretched spring?

A. Nuclear energy

B. Elastic potential energy

C. Chemical energy

D. Sound energy

Answer: B — Elastic potential energy

38. Which phenomenon explains the formation of a rainbow?

A. Reflection only

B. Dispersion of light

C. Magnetism

D. Conduction

Answer: B — Dispersion of light

39. A transformer works on the principle of:

A. Electromagnetic induction

B. Electrolysis

C. Thermal expansion

D. Photoelectric effect

Answer: A — Electromagnetic induction

40. Which particle has a negative electric charge?

A. Proton

B. Neutron

C. Electron

D. Nucleus

Answer: C — Electron

SECTION C — CHEMISTRY

Questions 41–50

41. What is the atomic number of hydrogen?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 8

Answer: B — 1

42. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is approximately:

A. 0

B. 5

C. 7

D. 14

Answer: C — 7

43. Which gas is essential for respiration?

A. Nitrogen

B. Oxygen

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Hydrogen

Answer: B — Oxygen

44. The chemical formula of water is:

A. CO₂

B. H₂O

C. O₂

D. H₂

Answer: B — H₂O

45. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?

A. Iron

B. Copper

C. Mercury

D. Aluminium

Answer: C — Mercury

46. Rusting of iron requires oxygen and:

A. Nitrogen

B. Moisture

C. Hydrogen

D. Carbon monoxide

Answer: B — Moisture

47. The gas used by green plants during photosynthesis is:

A. Oxygen

B. Nitrogen

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Hydrogen

Answer: C — Carbon dioxide

48. Which of the following is an acid?

A. NaOH

B. HCl

C. NaCl

D. CaO

Answer: B — HCl

49. The hardest naturally occurring substance is:

A. Iron

B. Graphite

C. Diamond

D. Quartz

Answer: C — Diamond

50. The periodic table is arranged primarily according to:

A. Atomic mass

B. Atomic number

C. Density

D. Melting point

Answer: B — Atomic number

SECTION D — BIOLOGY & GENERAL SCIENCE

Questions 51–60

51. The basic structural and functional unit of life is:

A. Tissue

B. Organ

C. Cell

D. Nucleus

Answer: C — Cell

52. Which organ pumps blood throughout the human body?

A. Liver

B. Kidney

C. Heart

D. Lung

Answer: C — Heart

53. Which blood cells are primarily responsible for fighting infections?

A. Red blood cells

B. White blood cells

C. Platelets

D. Plasma cells only

Answer: B — White blood cells

54. Which organ is primarily responsible for filtering blood and forming urine?

A. Heart

B. Kidney

C. Stomach

D. Pancreas

Answer: B — Kidney

55. Photosynthesis mainly takes place in the:

A. Nucleus

B. Chloroplast

C. Mitochondria

D. Ribosome

Answer: B — Chloroplast

56. Which vitamin is produced in the skin in the presence of sunlight?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B12

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

Answer: D — Vitamin D

57. The largest organ of the human body is:

A. Liver

B. Brain

C. Skin

D. Lung

Answer: C — Skin

58. Which hormone regulates blood sugar levels?

A. Insulin

B. Thyroxine

C. Adrenaline

D. Estrogen

Answer: A — Insulin

59. Which part of the plant mainly absorbs water and minerals from the soil?

A. Leaf

B. Stem

C. Root

D. Flower

Answer: C — Root

60. Malaria is caused by a:

A. Virus

B. Bacterium

C. Protozoan

D. Fungus

Answer: C — Protozoan

SECTION E — HISTORY

Questions 61–70

61. Who founded the Mauryan Empire?

A. Ashoka

B. Chandragupta Maurya

C. Harshavardhana

D. Samudragupta

Answer: B — Chandragupta Maurya

62. Ashoka belonged to which dynasty?

A. Gupta

B. Maurya

C. Chola

D. Mughal

Answer: B — Maurya

63. Who wrote the Arthashastra?

A. Kalidasa

B. Kautilya

C. Banabhatta

D. Megasthenes

Answer: B — Kautilya

64. The Battle of Plassey was fought in:

A. 1757

B. 1764

C. 1857

D. 1947

Answer: A — 1757

65. The Revolt of 1857 began at:

A. Delhi

B. Meerut

C. Kanpur

D. Lucknow

Answer: B — Meerut

66. Who founded the Indian National Congress in 1885 along with other early leaders?

A. A.O. Hume

B. Lord Curzon

C. Lord Mountbatten

D. Warren Hastings

Answer: A — A.O. Hume

67. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched under the leadership of:

A. Subhas Chandra Bose

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Sardar Patel

Answer: B — Mahatma Gandhi

68. The Dandi March was associated with the:

A. Quit India Movement

B. Civil Disobedience Movement

C. Non-Cooperation Movement

D. Swadeshi Movement

Answer: B — Civil Disobedience Movement

69. The Quit India Movement was launched in:

A. 1919

B. 1930

C. 1942

D. 1947

Answer: C — 1942

70. Who gave the slogan “Give me blood and I will give you freedom”?

A. Bhagat Singh

B. Subhas Chandra Bose

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: B — Subhas Chandra Bose

SECTION F — GEOGRAPHY

Questions 71–80

71. Which is the longest river in India?

A. Yamuna

B. Godavari

C. Ganga

D. Narmada

Answer: C — Ganga

72. Which river is known as the “Sorrow of Bihar”?

A. Kosi

B. Narmada

C. Tapi

D. Krishna

Answer: A — Kosi

73. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Answer: C — 8

74. Which soil is particularly suitable for cotton cultivation?

A. Alluvial soil

B. Black soil

C. Laterite soil

D. Mountain soil

Answer: B — Black soil

75. The Western Ghats are also known as:

A. Sahyadri

B. Shivalik

C. Aravalli

D. Nilgiri

Answer: A — Sahyadri

76. Which is the largest ocean in the world?

A. Atlantic Ocean

B. Indian Ocean

C. Pacific Ocean

D. Arctic Ocean

Answer: C — Pacific Ocean

77. Which Indian state has the longest coastline?

A. Kerala

B. Gujarat

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: B — Gujarat

78. The Sundarbans are primarily associated with:

A. Tropical thorn forests

B. Mangrove forests

C. Alpine forests

D. Coniferous forests

Answer: B — Mangrove forests

79. Which monsoon is primarily responsible for most of India's rainfall?

A. Northeast monsoon

B. Southwest monsoon

C. Northwesterly winds

D. Westerlies

Answer: B — Southwest monsoon

80. The Narmada River flows mainly towards the:

A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

Answer: B — West

SECTION G — INDIAN POLITY

Questions 81–90

81. The Constitution of India came into force on:

A. 15 August 1947

B. 26 November 1949

C. 26 January 1950

D. 2 October 1950

Answer: C — 26 January 1950

82. The Constitution of India was adopted on:

A. 15 August 1947

B. 26 November 1949

C. 26 January 1950

D. 9 December 1946

Answer: B — 26 November 1949

83. Fundamental Rights are contained in which part of the Constitution?

A. Part I

B. Part II

C. Part III

D. Part IV

Answer: C — Part III

84. The President of India is elected by:

A. Direct vote of citizens

B. Electoral College

C. Lok Sabha alone

D. Rajya Sabha alone

Answer: B — Electoral College

85. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:

A. President

B. Rajya Sabha

C. Lok Sabha

D. Supreme Court

Answer: C — Lok Sabha

86. The highest court of India is the:

A. High Court

B. Supreme Court

C. District Court

D. Constitutional Tribunal

Answer: B — Supreme Court

87. The constitutional head of the Union is the:

A. Prime Minister

B. President

C. Chief Justice

D. Speaker

Answer: B — President

88. The minimum voting age in India is:

A. 16

B. 18

C. 21

D. 25

Answer: B — 18

89. Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:

A. Part III

B. Part IV

C. Part V

D. Part VI

Answer: B — Part IV

90. The Indian Parliament consists of the President and:

A. Lok Sabha only

B. Rajya Sabha only

C. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

D. Supreme Court

Answer: C — Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

SECTION H — ENGLISH

Questions 91–95

91. Choose the correct synonym of “ABANDON”:

A. Continue

B. Leave

C. Collect

D. Protect

Answer: B — Leave

92. Choose the antonym of “ANCIENT”:

A. Old

B. Historic

C. Modern

D. Traditional

Answer: C — Modern

93. Choose the correct preposition:

“He is good ___ Mathematics.”

A. in

B. at

C. on

D. with

Answer: B — at

94. Choose the correctly spelt word:

A. Accomodation

B. Acommodation

C. Accommodation

D. Accommadation

Answer: C — Accommodation

95. Identify the correct sentence:

A. He do not know the answer.

B. He does not knows the answer.

C. He does not know the answer.

D. He did not knew the answer.

Answer: C — He does not know the answer.

SECTION I — CURRENT AFFAIRS & DEFENCE AWARENESS

Questions 96–100

96. Who is the current President of India?

A. Pratibha Patil

B. Droupadi Murmu

C. Ram Nath Kovind

D. Nirmala Sitharaman

Answer: B — Droupadi Murmu

The official President of India website identifies Smt. Droupadi Murmu as the 15th President of India, sworn in on 25 July 2022.

97. Which Indian organisation successfully launched the GSLV-F17/EOS-05 mission on 4 September 2026?

A. DRDO

B. ISRO

C. HAL

D. BARC

Answer: B — ISRO

ISRO lists the GSLV-F17/EOS-05 mission with a launch date of 4 September 2026.

98. What was the theme of the 3rd National Space Day 2026?

A. Space for Humanity

B. Towards Viksit Bharat: Innovating, Collaborating and Aspiring to Global Space Leadership

C. Digital India Through Space

D. Space Technology for Defence

Answer: B

ISRO states that the 3rd National Space Day 2026 was held at Ahmedabad and gives this year's theme as “Towards Viksit Bharat: Innovating, Collaborating and Aspiring to Global Space Leadership.”

99. Which team won the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2026?

A. Australia

B. England

C. India

D. New Zealand

Answer: C — India

India defeated New Zealand by 96 runs in the final in Ahmedabad and became the first men's team to win the T20 World Cup in consecutive editions.

100. The 2026 Winter Olympics were held in which location?

A. Paris

B. Milano Cortina

C. Tokyo

D. Los Angeles

Answer: B — Milano Cortina

The 2026 Winter Olympics were held in Milano Cortina, Italy.

How to Use These 100 Questions Before NDA 2 2026

Do not simply read the answers.

Use this three-step method:

Round 1 — Test Yourself

Cover the answers and attempt all 100 questions.

Mark each question:

🟢 I know it

🟡 I was unsure

🔴 I got it wrong

Round 2 — Revise Your Weak Areas

Your red and yellow questions are more important than the questions you already know.

Revise the related concept immediately.

Round 3 — Take a Timed Mock Test

After completing this revision set, attempt a full-length NDA mock test.

Then analyse:

• Accuracy
• Time management
• Questions left unattempted
• Silly mistakes
• Weak chapters
• Guessing errors

Important: Don't Treat These as Predicted Questions

The purpose of this article is final revision, not prediction.

No coaching institute can legitimately guarantee the exact questions that UPSC will ask.

The best strategy is to combine:

Official syllabus + Previous-Year Papers + Concept Revision + Mock Tests + Current Affairs

UPSC publishes official previous-year NDA question papers, including Mathematics and General Ability Test papers, which should be used alongside any revision material.

NDA 2 2026: Your Final 7-Day Strategy

If you have only a few days remaining, follow this sequence:

Day 1

Mathematics + Physics

Day 2

History + Geography

Day 3

Chemistry + Biology + General Science

Day 4

English + Mathematics

Day 5

Current Affairs + Defence Awareness + GK

Day 6

Full Mock Test + Detailed Analysis

Day 7

Formula revision + short notes + light revision

And remember:

Do not try to become a new student in the final seven days. Become a more accurate version of the student you already are.

Final Words from The Original Tutors

The NDA examination is not just a test of knowledge.

It tests your:

• Accuracy
• Speed
• Decision-making
• Discipline
• Time management
• Mental composure

You have prepared for this moment.

Now trust your preparation.

Revise smartly.

Practise seriously.

Avoid unnecessary mistakes.

And give your best on 13 September 2026.

Your Dream. Our Mission.

The Original Tutors

Prepare Today. Lead Tomorrow.

Jai Hind! 🇮🇳

Frequently Asked Questions

When is NDA 2 2026?

The UPSC National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II), 2026 is scheduled for 13 September 2026.

What should I revise before NDA 2 2026?

Focus on Mathematics, English, Physics, Chemistry, General Science, History, Geography, Polity and current affairs. Give particular attention to your weak areas and previous-year questions.

Are these NDA 2 2026 expected questions?

No. These are important final-revision questions, not guaranteed or leaked questions.

How should I prepare in the last week?

Prioritise revision, previous-year questions, mock tests and analysis of mistakes rather than starting large new topics.

Where can I find official NDA previous-year papers?

UPSC publishes previous-year question papers on its official website, including NDA Mathematics and General Ability Test papers.

Is current affairs important for NDA?

Yes. Current affairs should form part of your final revision, particularly national and international developments, defence, science and technology, sports and major government-related developments.

Disclaimer: This article is prepared for educational and revision purposes. The questions are selected as practice/revision questions and should not be treated as predictions of the actual UPSC NDA 2 2026 question paper.